What if the husband and the wife do not share a bed or are not intimate for months?

So if a husband or wife do not share the bed or are not intimate for months, then if the lack of intimacy was malicious and withheld to harm the other person, then the person who had done so is sinful.

It does not, however, trigger an iddah period because the iddah is only triggered by a talaaq.

However, if a wife for example is not being sexually satisfied and not being given intimacy by her husband, she then has the ability to request talaaq or to demand a khula.

For a husband, he can do the same. He can just divorce her if she's not being intimate with him .

So a lack of intimacy does not trigger a talaaq and thus an iddah, but it does give the person an option to then ask for one. Why? Because one of the main objectives of marriage is intimacy.

Some scholars have said, if a man is not intimate with his wife for more than four months, then this gives her the option.

Others have made it a bit shorter.

So, I say that to say that, no, this doesn't trigger an iddah, but it does trigger the conversation of why is there no intimacy and should we be separating or ending this?